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Sep 24, 2021 at 11:27 vote accept Baruch Spinoza
Sep 24, 2021 at 9:24 answer added Steve timeline score: 3
Sep 23, 2021 at 20:16 comment added Ronnie Pavlov Of course you're right. I figured I was missing something easy. Interesting question!
Sep 23, 2021 at 14:12 comment added Baruch Spinoza Also, I guess what I really should have said instead of "without isolated points" is "connected".
Sep 23, 2021 at 14:00 comment added Baruch Spinoza But doesn't adding the Lebesgue measure in fact give $W_\infty$ convergence? My intuition for what goes wrong in the example I gave is that any small neighbourhood $U$ of $1$ must be extended all the way to $0$ to get $\delta_0(U_r)>\mu_n(U)$. But with Lebesgue available, you can get away with extending by a small amount. Thanks for your response, and sorry if I am way off the mark.
Sep 23, 2021 at 13:24 comment added Ronnie Pavlov And it shouldn't hold even if you assume your measures are monatomic; you could just replace your delta-measures by normalized Lebesgue measure over a pair of disjoint closed intervals, and it should have weak but not $W_\infty$ convergence for the same reason as yours. It seems that $W_\infty$ is just a drastically stronger notion of convergence.
Sep 23, 2021 at 13:20 comment added Ronnie Pavlov Couldn't you just add Lebesgue measure to both $\mu_n$ and $\delta_0$ (and normalize if you want), and then you have two fully supported measures with weak but not $W_\infty$ convergence for the same reason?
S Sep 23, 2021 at 12:20 review First questions
Sep 23, 2021 at 12:51
S Sep 23, 2021 at 12:20 history asked Baruch Spinoza CC BY-SA 4.0