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Sep 22, 2021 at 20:31 vote accept Guilherme
Sep 22, 2021 at 11:52 comment added Mateusz Kwaśnicki Well, the Markov property follows directly from $$\langle f, (-\Delta)^{s/2} f\rangle = \frac12 \int_{-\pi}^\pi \int_{-\pi}^\pi (f(y) - f(x)) \nu(y - x) dy dx.$$ And this is essentially one of the properties of a bilinear form required to call it a Dirichlet form. And yes, $\langle\cdot,\cdot\rangle$ is the $L^2$ inner product.
Sep 22, 2021 at 11:44 comment added Guilherme Nice answer! The $\langle \cdot, \cdot \rangle$ is the $L^2$-inner product? Do you have some reference of the 'Markov Property'?
Sep 22, 2021 at 11:41 history answered Mateusz Kwaśnicki CC BY-SA 4.0