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Sep 22, 2021 at 11:42 comment added user381021 For stats.stackexchange -- this feels morel ike probability than stats to me, but I suppose I can try. Thanks for the suggestion!
Sep 22, 2021 at 11:39 comment added user381021 Yes, this is clearly the same! This equivalence, even though trivial, underlies a proof I have written for something less trivial (the look-down model, projecteuclid.org/journals/annals-of-probability/volume-24/…), so I'm asking around to see if people have seen this used or named before. Maybe it's just too trivial.
Sep 22, 2021 at 1:57 comment added Sam Hopkins [ We then pick randomly from the "previously picked" pile with probability c(n)/52, and from the top of the original deck with probability 1-c(n)/52 ] - but this is clearly just the same as choosing a random card, right? At any rate, possibly your question would be better received at stats.stackexchange.com.
S Sep 21, 2021 at 18:04 review First questions
Sep 21, 2021 at 19:18
S Sep 21, 2021 at 18:04 history asked user381021 CC BY-SA 4.0