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Sep 18, 2021 at 18:20 comment added Tim Campion It seems to me that, thinking in terms of the associated long exact sequence, it's rather unusual for one of the maps to be uniquely determined by the other two, even at the level of homotopy groups... Isn't the indeterminacy parameterized by $Map(Y, \Omega Z')$?
Sep 18, 2021 at 17:48 answer added Dmitri Pavlov timeline score: 1
S Sep 16, 2021 at 9:43 review First questions
Sep 16, 2021 at 10:23
S Sep 16, 2021 at 9:43 history asked user374433 CC BY-SA 4.0