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Feb 17, 2022 at 13:11 comment added Uri Bader @DenisNardin hmm... thanks for noticing. Maybe I had something in mind when I wrote it, possibly a mistake. I will need to make a correction somewhere either way. I will look into it later on.
Feb 17, 2022 at 11:23 comment added Denis Nardin @UriBader Ah I was confused by your remark in the other answer claiming that this proof works for all complete valued fields
Feb 17, 2022 at 8:45 comment added Uri Bader @DenisNardin note that I have a standing assumption that $K$ is a local field here, so this answers your question. However, you are right asking it. I'd be happy to have a variant of the argument which works for arbitrary complete fields.
Feb 16, 2022 at 22:05 comment added Denis Nardin @UriBader why is the unit ball in $K$ compact? I thought that was true iff $K$ is locally compact
Aug 26, 2021 at 7:25 history edited Uri Bader CC BY-SA 4.0
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Aug 25, 2021 at 17:35 comment added Ege Erdil The argument now seems fine. I'll accept this answer if no simpler answer is given in the next day or two, but I'm still hoping that there's a simpler way to get this result...
Aug 25, 2021 at 13:37 history edited Uri Bader CC BY-SA 4.0
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Aug 25, 2021 at 12:14 comment added Uri Bader The text is now complete, in my mind. I apologize for presenting a non-complete text earlier on.
Aug 25, 2021 at 12:13 history edited Uri Bader CC BY-SA 4.0
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Aug 25, 2021 at 9:18 history edited Uri Bader CC BY-SA 4.0
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Aug 24, 2021 at 21:40 history edited Uri Bader CC BY-SA 4.0
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Aug 24, 2021 at 21:34 comment added Uri Bader Thanks for the notes: I was too brief and too sloppy. My answer describes a uniform proof that the intended norm is indeed a norm, in fact an absolute value. This follows from the fact that it is a $C$-ultra absolute value (which I didn't elaborate on much) plus the fact that every extension of a norm which is a $C$-ultra absolute value is an actual absolute value, as we have $|2|\leq 2$.
Aug 24, 2021 at 21:30 history edited Uri Bader CC BY-SA 4.0
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Aug 24, 2021 at 21:28 comment added Ege Erdil The question is specifically about completions of $ \mathbb Q $ because it's not true in general that this expression induces a norm on the extension. For example, $ f : a + b \sqrt{2} \to \sqrt{|a^2 - 2b^2|} $ does not define a norm on $ \mathbb Q(\sqrt{2}) $, as can be easily checked, for example since $ 2 \sqrt{2} = f(2 \sqrt{2}) = f((\sqrt{2} + 1) + f(\sqrt{2} - 1)) > f(\sqrt{2} + 1) + f(\sqrt{2} - 1) = 2 $, violating the triangle inequality. Your answer doesn't address this issue at all.
Aug 24, 2021 at 20:58 history answered Uri Bader CC BY-SA 4.0