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Aug 25, 2021 at 0:41 vote accept Andre of Astora
Aug 25, 2021 at 0:41 comment added Andre of Astora I think $f_t$ quasiregular for all $t$ because there exists a coordinate $z_t$ in which $f_t(z_t)$ is holomorphic for each $t$ (although does this mean it is quasiregular with respect to the initial coordinate $z_0$?) The first condition for Ch V.C Theorem 5 in Ahlfors looks like it is satisfied if $f_t$ depends smoothly on $t$ so that $\mu_t$ also depends smoothly on $t$. $||\mu_t||_{\infty}<1$ I think is satisfied since $(f_t)_{\overline{z}} = 0$ when $t=0$.
Aug 24, 2021 at 12:16 history answered Alexandre Eremenko CC BY-SA 4.0