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when toggle format what by license comment
S Aug 18, 2021 at 8:01 history suggested Buzz CC BY-SA 4.0
fixed ambiguous notation
Aug 18, 2021 at 0:16 review Suggested edits
S Aug 18, 2021 at 8:01
Aug 17, 2021 at 22:38 comment added user44143 On the first question, I am not saying that the two areas represent the same region, but that they have the same measure. I implicitly used the fact that $\{A \in [0,\pi]: f>-2\cot A\}$ is the same region as $\{A \in [0,\pi]: f>2\cot(\pi-A)\}$ and therefore has the same measure as $\{A \in [0,\pi]: f>2\cot A\}$. On the second question, it’s only after evaluating the integrals that I can see that $dA(\alpha)/d\alpha=0$. Did you get something other than $\pm\log((1+\alpha)/(1-\alpha))/(2\alpha)$ when you did the integrals?
Aug 17, 2021 at 6:08 history answered user44143 CC BY-SA 4.0