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Aug 14, 2021 at 19:23 comment added Dmitri Pavlov “As for 2-categories, one doesn't even have to motivate them since they're all over the place”: most of these 2-categories likely have (∞,2)-analogues with the same motivation. I'd have a hard time imagining a situation where such a homotopical analogue is not possible, but it would be helpful if some concrete examples were given by the OP.
Aug 13, 2021 at 2:29 answer added dhy timeline score: 10
Aug 11, 2021 at 7:44 comment added Konrad Waldorf I have a kind of déjà-vu. 15 years ago we were challenged to explain why to step from 1-categories to 2-categories. Now we have progressed to an $\infty$-analogue :-) See mathoverflow.net/questions/82981/are-higher-categories-useful/…
Aug 11, 2021 at 2:36 comment added David Ben-Zvi One more example (again not at all unrelated): monoidal categories come up in many contexts in math. Their derived version is most naturally studied from the point of view of $(\infty,2)$-categories (the Morita theory of monoidal categories forms such a beast, just like the Morita theory of algebras is one of the most natural sources of ordinary categories)
Aug 11, 2021 at 2:35 answer added Andrew Macpherson timeline score: 19
Aug 11, 2021 at 2:34 comment added David Ben-Zvi The three examples - 2-categories of bordisms, 2-categories of spaces with correspondences, and 2-categories of categories -- come packaged together when we study Lagrangian topological field theories (in codim 2) which are functors from the first to the third that factor through the second.
Aug 11, 2021 at 2:32 comment added David Ben-Zvi There are lots of [$\infty$-] categories we might care about in mainstream math, and performing operations on them often requires a formalism of [$\infty$-]2-categories.. One example (not unrelated to my favorite, the TFT one) is treating the functoriality of categories of sheaves under correspondences - this is the main point of the book of Gaitsgory-Rozenblyum.
Aug 11, 2021 at 0:42 comment added Sridhar Ramesh Probably the main reason to care about them is because, as you already note, people care about $(\infty, 1)$-categories, and people care about $2$-categories, and it seems likely they have some clean unifying common generalization. The sharpest natural notion of which would be the $(\infty, 2)$-categories.
Aug 10, 2021 at 21:25 comment added Arun Debray A related/relevant MO question: mathoverflow.net/questions/373079
Aug 10, 2021 at 18:06 history asked Daniel Teixeira CC BY-SA 4.0