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Aug 8, 2021 at 15:30 vote accept Roland Bacher
Aug 8, 2021 at 15:30 comment added Roland Bacher The last statement is somtimes not true $\{6\choose 5}+1=7=n+1$ is prime but does not divide $(n+1)!$. This situation should nowever be the only exception!
Aug 8, 2021 at 15:12 history edited user334725 CC BY-SA 4.0
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Aug 8, 2021 at 15:08 comment added Roland Bacher You are right. That proves that these sets are finite. Write it as an answer so I can accept it!
Aug 8, 2021 at 15:05 comment added user334725 Note also that all the "small sets" have $(n+1)$ dividing $k!$.
Aug 8, 2021 at 14:59 comment added user334725 When $k$ is odd, writing $f_k(n)={n\choose k}+1$ you have $f_k(-1)=0$ as a polynomial evaluation, and removing the denominator gives you the extra $k!$ in integers. I.e., $3!f_3(n)=n(n-1)(n-2)+6$, so $$3!f_3(-1)=(-1)(-2)(-3)+6=-6+6=0.$$ As $(-1)$ is a root of $f_k(n)$, then $(n+1)$ divides it (again worrying about denominators).
Aug 8, 2021 at 14:56 review First posts
Aug 8, 2021 at 15:18
Aug 8, 2021 at 14:55 history answered user334725 CC BY-SA 4.0