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Aug 6, 2021 at 17:02 comment added Bill Johnson @GeraldEdgar: WLOG the functions are simple functions.
Aug 6, 2021 at 16:11 comment added Gerald Edgar "Rearrange to be decreasing" ... That is not $f \circ T$ as in the OP. For example, $f(x) = 4x(1-x)$ in $[0,1]$ where each value in $(0,1)$ occurs twice. How do we "rearrange" it to be decreasing? We cannot use measure-preserving bijection for that.
Aug 6, 2021 at 15:43 comment added Nate River @fedja Oh, I think that is true - in that case we just rearrange all the $f_i$ to be decreasing and we are done then.
Aug 6, 2021 at 12:55 comment added fedja Isn't any set of decreasing uniformly bounded functions pre-compact in $L^1$?
Aug 6, 2021 at 11:52 history edited Gerald Edgar CC BY-SA 4.0
misprint
Aug 6, 2021 at 9:19 history edited Nate River CC BY-SA 4.0
added 64 characters in body
Aug 6, 2021 at 8:45 history edited Nate River CC BY-SA 4.0
added 69 characters in body
Aug 6, 2021 at 8:44 comment added Nate River Ah, sorry my bad. I will modify it, and also write the definition in the original post.
Aug 6, 2021 at 8:27 comment added Jochen Glueck Thanks for the clarification! This is actually called weak (rather than weak-$*$) convergence.
Aug 6, 2021 at 8:22 comment added Nate River Sorry, I mean that $\int f_i g \ d\mu \to \int fg \ d\mu$ for all $g \in L^\infty$.
Aug 6, 2021 at 6:53 comment added Jochen Glueck What do you mean by weak-$*$ convergence in $L^1$?
Aug 6, 2021 at 2:17 history asked Nate River CC BY-SA 4.0