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Jul 28, 2021 at 10:59 comment added Nick L Furthermore, the question does a generic simply connected, smooth $6$-manifold admit no finite group actions makes perfect sense, because such manifolds are uniquely determined by their cohomolgy ring and characteristic classes (Wall-Jupp-Jubr) so the set of diffeomorphism classes sits in a space suitable for such quantitative questions. Puppe proved several striking statements in the case when the manifolds are spin (a substantial subset), for example that the set of manifolds having a cohomologically non-trivial finite group action has density 0. See Theorem 3 of the paper mentioned above.
Jul 28, 2021 at 10:45 comment added Nick L For a specific reference for the simply connected case of "counter-question" is Theorem 4 of arxiv.org/pdf/math/0606714.pdf. Puppe constructed a simply connected $6$-manifold on which no finite group can act effectively by orientation preserving transformations.
Jul 28, 2021 at 10:10 history edited archipelago
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Jul 28, 2021 at 4:44 comment added Ryan Budney The answer to your question is going to be sensitive to dimension. There aren't any compact simply-connected 1-manifolds. In dimension 2 there's only the one manifold $S^2$, so your answer will be negative. In dimension 3, again you run into the problem of not having interesting simply-connected manifolds. I think your question is somewhat bogged-down in the issue of what "most" should mean. The question still makes sense for manifolds with fundamental groups. In that case, you start seeing symmetryless manifolds in dimension 3.
Jul 27, 2021 at 20:43 comment added markvs Did you discuss it with D.Fuchs?
Jul 27, 2021 at 20:29 comment added Denis T There's a paper by Volker Puppe with a title very reminiscent of the question, and there he proves that "most" 3-manifolds have no finite order diffeomorphisms.
Jul 27, 2021 at 20:07 comment added mme "...Also we better restrict to connected manifolds, and maybe also to simply connected manifolds." I missed this sentence. I think there is likely to be substantial difference between the s.c. case and the general case: one reason to believe your Statement is that one might believe that most manifolds satisfy Borel's hypotheses.
Jul 27, 2021 at 20:06 comment added archipelago Any finite order diffeomorphism of a closed manifold that fixes a point and the tangent space at that point is the identity (choose an invariant Riemannian metric and shoot geodesics away from that point). In particular $Diff_\partial(D^d)$ is torsion-free (extend the diffeomorphism to the sphere and use the above).
Jul 27, 2021 at 19:57 comment added mme Counter-question. Yes, I believe the first example is due to Borel ("On periodic maps of certain K(pi,1)"), which proves that any aspherical manifold with centerless fundamental group and torsion-free outer automorphism group supports no finite order diffeomorphisms. For hyperbolic manifolds I believe every finite group action is conjugate to an action by hyperbolic isometries, so you're just asking (by Mostow) for hyperbolic manifolds with Out(pi_1) tors-free, just like in Borel's statement.
Jul 27, 2021 at 19:45 history asked Chris Schommer-Pries CC BY-SA 4.0