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Jul 25, 2021 at 12:16 comment added Nicolas Hemelsoet No, for infinite dimensional modules the situation is different than finite-dimensional one. You can look up "Verma modules" to get started.
Jul 25, 2021 at 12:11 comment added Spyros Olympopolous but maybe it does not . . . .
Jul 25, 2021 at 11:56 comment added Spyros Olympopolous However since $\frak{g}$ is semisimple by assumption, it must have complete decomposibility (I guess this extends to the infinfite dimensional setting). Hence any $V' \subseteq V$ admits a complement and hence reducible implies decomposable . . . . I hope I am not wrong about complete decomposibility though.
Jul 25, 2021 at 11:51 comment added Spyros Olympopolous Ok, I see it's the distinction between the existence of a decomposition $V = V' \oplus V''$ and the existence of a submodule $V' \subseteq V$. So irreducible is stronger than indecomposable.
Jul 25, 2021 at 11:44 comment added Spyros Olympopolous Sorry but what is the distiction between "indecomposable" and "irreducible"?
Jul 25, 2021 at 11:36 comment added Nicolas Hemelsoet It's not true that if $v$ is highest weight then $U(\mathfrak g)v$ is irreducible : for example the Verma module $M(0)$ for $\mathfrak{sl}_2$ admits $M(-2)$ as submodule. Even if you replace "irreducible" by "indecomposable", for a general $v \in V$ the module $U(\mathfrak g)v$ doesn't need to be incomposable. For example take $M(0)$ generated by $v$ and $M(1)$ generated by $w$. Then, the vector $v+w \in M(0) \oplus M(1)$ will generate $M(0) \oplus M(1)$ which is not indecomposable. If $v$ is highest weight, then $U(\mathfrak g)v$ is always indecomposable.
Jul 25, 2021 at 11:27 review First posts
Jul 25, 2021 at 12:35
Jul 25, 2021 at 11:21 history asked Spyros Olympopolous CC BY-SA 4.0