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Jul 21, 2021 at 18:50 vote accept Gabriel
Jul 21, 2021 at 13:21 comment added Matthew Pressland In the examples I normally encounter, in which $\mathsf{A}$ is the category of modules over an algebra $A$, and $\mathsf{B}$ is the category of modules over an idempotent quotient $A/(e)$, it is quite rare that $\mathsf{D}(\mathsf{B})$ is equivalent to $\mathsf{D}_{\mathsf{B}}(\mathsf{A})$.
Jul 20, 2021 at 12:36 answer added D.-C. Cisinski timeline score: 20
Jul 20, 2021 at 12:12 history asked Gabriel CC BY-SA 4.0