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Jul 18, 2021 at 20:24 comment added Puzzled Thank you very much to both of you for the answer. Could one argue also by saying that $f(m) = h^0(X,mD)$ is a polynomial function? So if $f(m) = c $ for $m\gg 0$ then $f(m) = c$ for all $m\geq 0$, and hence $f(m) = 1$ for all $m\geq 0$. Is this correct?
Jul 18, 2021 at 19:27 history answered Sasha CC BY-SA 4.0