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Jul 13, 2021 at 8:12 comment added Neil Strickland In this situation, if $f_*=0$ on $\pi_2$ then $f$ is nullhomotopic (and therefore $f_*=0$ on $\pi_k$ for all $k$).
Jul 13, 2021 at 7:52 history asked Zhiqiang CC BY-SA 4.0