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Jul 11, 2021 at 16:34 review Close votes
Jul 16, 2021 at 3:01
Jul 11, 2021 at 9:52 comment added Francesco Polizzi See mathoverflow.net/questions/164937/…
Jul 11, 2021 at 9:51 comment added Francesco Polizzi For varieties over $\mathbb{C}$, the birationality should be a consequence of the following result: If $f:X \to Y$ is a morphism of varieties and either $f$ is finite or $X$ and $Y$ are projective, then $f$ is an isomorphism if and only if $f$ is bijective and $\mathrm{d} f: T_x(X) \to T_{f(x)}(Y)$ is injective for all $x \in X$.
Jul 11, 2021 at 9:30 comment added Laurent Moret-Bailly Welcome, new contributor. The answer is no: take $\mathrm{Spec}(\mathbb{C})\to \mathrm{Spec}(\mathbb{R})$.
Jul 11, 2021 at 9:17 review First posts
Jul 11, 2021 at 12:56
Jul 11, 2021 at 9:16 history asked Eduardo CC BY-SA 4.0