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Dec 16, 2021 at 14:14 history protected Tim Campion
Jul 10, 2021 at 16:28 vote accept CommunityBot
Jul 10, 2021 at 13:06 answer added AlexIvanov timeline score: 9
Jul 9, 2021 at 17:59 comment added user106850 @hans point taken, I edited the question. And no, as $\beta$ is not necessarily integral. It could be that $(\beta) = \mathfrak{P}I/\sigma(I)$, then we still have $(\beta \sigma(\beta)) = \mathfrak{P} \sigma(\mathfrak{P}).$
Jul 9, 2021 at 17:57 history edited user106850 CC BY-SA 4.0
Use $\mathfrak{P}$ for the big field
Jul 9, 2021 at 17:56 comment added hans If $\beta \sigma(\beta) \mathcal{O}_L = \mathfrak{P}\sigma({\mathfrak{P}})$, doesn't it follow from the unique factorization that either $\beta = \mathfrak{P}$ or $\sigma(\beta) = \mathfrak{P}$?
Jul 9, 2021 at 17:53 comment added hans It is a bit confusing to use $\mathfrak{p}$ for the prime ideal in the big field.
Jul 9, 2021 at 17:44 history asked user106850 CC BY-SA 4.0