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Jul 10, 2021 at 1:15 vote accept mdou
Jul 10, 2021 at 1:14 comment added mdou None of $X_1,\ldots,X_k$ has actually to be normally distributed let alone jointly. But since they are i.i.d. they will satisfy CLT.
Jul 9, 2021 at 17:48 comment added Michael Hardy It is not generally true that if $U,V$ are normally distributed then so is $U+V.$ For example, let $V=\pm U,$ where $\text{“$\pm$”}$ it is $\text{“$+$”}$ with probability $1/2$ and otherwise $\text{“$-$”},$ independently of $U.$ Then $\Pr(U+V=0)>0$ and $\Pr(U+V\ne0)>0,$ so this sum is not normally distributed. $\qquad$
Jul 9, 2021 at 17:45 comment added Michael Hardy You haven't said that each of $X_1,\ldots,X_k$ is normally distributed. Did you intend that to be understood? If so, it should be mentioned.
Jul 9, 2021 at 13:28 history became hot network question
Jul 9, 2021 at 7:03 answer added Nate Eldredge timeline score: 5
Jul 9, 2021 at 5:31 review First posts
Jul 9, 2021 at 5:52
Jul 9, 2021 at 5:28 history asked mdou CC BY-SA 4.0