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Feb 28, 2022 at 17:38 vote accept ADL
Feb 22, 2022 at 19:46 answer added Giles Gardam timeline score: 9
Jun 24, 2021 at 14:34 comment added Mikko Korhonen @AchimKrause: If $G/Z(G)$ is finite, then the commutator subgroup $[G,G]$ is finite, by a theorem of Schur.
Jun 24, 2021 at 11:34 comment added ADL @AchimKrause I was meaning trying to adapt the general proof of the case when $G/\langle x\rangle$ is finite to when $G/\langle x\rangle$ is torsion. It is a standard fact that if $G$ is torsion-free, $\langle x\rangle$ infinite cyclic and $G/\langle x\rangle$ is finite and then $G$ must be infinite cyclic - so can the proof be adapted?
Jun 24, 2021 at 11:19 comment added Achim Krause @YCor: Cool, I wasn't aware of Tarski monsters. So there are plenty of groups that could occur as $G/\langle x \rangle$. I suppose we are precisely looking for a Tarski monster $H$ and a cohomology class in $H^2(H;\mathbb{Z})$ whose image in $H^2(C_p;\mathbb{Z})$ is nontrivial for all subgroups $C_p$.
Jun 24, 2021 at 11:14 comment added Achim Krause @ADL I think we can rule out the case of $G/\langle x\rangle$ finite: As discussed above, it must be a simple group (since the center $\langle x\rangle$ is the maximal normal subgroup of $G$), and every proper subgroup is cyclic. It cannot itself be cyclic, as then $G$ would be abelian. If $y\in G/\langle x\rangle$ has order $2$, it is either central or we find a nontrivial conjugate $y'$, and then $y, y'$ generate a dihedral subgroup. So $G/\langle x\rangle$ is either dihedral or odd, in both cases it cannot be simple.
Jun 24, 2021 at 11:01 comment added YCor I believe one also might try to indeed construct such examples of central extensions of Tarski monsters.
Jun 24, 2021 at 10:58 comment added ADL @AchimKrause Yes, I was getting tangled up with groups of this form too. I tried to mimic the proof that if $G$ is torsion-free and $G/\langle x\rangle$ is finite then $G$ is cyclic, and the idea here is to prove that $G$ splits. So for example if $H^2(G/\langle x\rangle, \mathbb{Z})=0$ then we'd be done, but I cannot see why this would be $0$.
Jun 24, 2021 at 10:39 comment added Achim Krause Also note that if we do have nontrivial center $\langle x \rangle$, then $G/\langle x \rangle$ is a pretty weird group: It has the property that every proper subgroup is finite cyclic. It feels like one should be able to finish from here, but I haven't figured out how yet.
Jun 24, 2021 at 10:06 comment added Achim Krause Small observation: Any normal subgroup is necessarily central. Assume $\langle x \rangle$ is normal, and there is $y$ with $yxy^{-1} = x^{-1}$. Then $\langle x,y\rangle$ cannot be cyclic, so it must be all of $G$. The subgroup $\langle x,y^2\rangle$ is abelian, thus a proper subgroup, and must be cyclic. So $G$ is a normal extension $\mathbb{Z}\to G \to C_2$ with sign action on $\mathbb{Z}$, and thus isomorphic to the infinite dihedral group, which contains $2$-torsion, contradiction.
Jun 24, 2021 at 9:49 history edited ADL CC BY-SA 4.0
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Jun 24, 2021 at 9:33 comment added ADL @MikaeldelaSalle I meant to exclude that possibility! I'll edit the question to rule it out.
Jun 24, 2021 at 9:32 comment added Mikael de la Salle What about an infinite cyclic group?
Jun 24, 2021 at 9:28 history edited ADL CC BY-SA 4.0
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Jun 24, 2021 at 9:22 history asked ADL CC BY-SA 4.0