Timeline for Do equal integrals of $1/(1+x^a)$ imply equal measure?
Current License: CC BY-SA 4.0
4 events
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| Jun 22, 2021 at 14:24 | comment | added | Xiaosheng Mu | Thanks Martin. I came to this argument later yesterday as well, but was wondering whether the result still holds without the extra condition limiting the mass near zero | |
| Jun 22, 2021 at 12:56 | comment | added | Martin Hairer | @MattF. I don't think so since I only exploit $a\to 0$ and $a \to \infty$. The standard counterexamples would probably fail at finite $a$ and I suspect that the "real" answer is yes unconditionally. | |
| Jun 22, 2021 at 12:49 | comment | added | user44143 | Does this argument also imply a counterexample when the bounds do not hold, as with the lognormal distribution (mathoverflow.net/a/3553/44143)? | |
| Jun 22, 2021 at 11:20 | history | answered | Martin Hairer | CC BY-SA 4.0 |