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Jun 16, 2021 at 23:42 comment added Alexander Kalmynin It is esentially the same as Balazard-Saias-Yor criterion, so probably not.
Jun 16, 2021 at 23:34 comment added user292590 Is it somewhere proved apart from Balazard et al. that $A=C$ is equivalent to RH?
Jun 16, 2021 at 23:31 comment added Alexander Kalmynin I already explained in the comment above what I mean by "not true". It is more like "not necessarily true, to our knowledge". I also think that the Riemann hypothesis is true, actually
Jun 16, 2021 at 23:29 comment added user292590 can you please give a counterexample that $A\neq C$? I think that $A=C$.
Jun 16, 2021 at 23:28 comment added Alexander Kalmynin The last formula in your question states that $A=C+C$. It is true and derivation is correct.
Jun 16, 2021 at 23:26 comment added user292590 Thanks. Can you please elaborate on how we get $A=2C$?
Jun 16, 2021 at 23:24 comment added Alexander Kalmynin Clarifying comment added. By "not true" above I mean "equivalent to the Riemann hypothesis, so is not contained in the linked paper and also not likely to be derived as easily as the formula from the paper"
Jun 16, 2021 at 23:22 history edited Alexander Kalmynin CC BY-SA 4.0
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Jun 16, 2021 at 23:05 comment added user292590 The truth of which formula is equivalent to the Riemann hypothesis?
Jun 16, 2021 at 23:02 comment added user292590 Which formula is correct?
Jun 16, 2021 at 23:01 comment added user292590 How is the sum in the left , $\sum_{|\alpha|<1,f(\alpha)=0} \log\frac{1}{|\alpha|^2}$ equal to $\frac{1}{2}$ times the sum $\sum_{-\pi/2<\arg(\rho)<\pi/2}\log\left|\frac{\rho}{1-\rho}\right| + \sum_{-\pi/2<\arg(\rho)<\pi/2}\log\left|\frac{\rho}{1-\rho}\right| $
Jun 16, 2021 at 22:55 comment added Alexander Kalmynin @Shyla No, your final formula is correct, it's equivalent to what is stated in the article you linked. However, the formula in the Question is not true. I mean, it's truth is actually equivalent to RH. Also it is not the formula from the article.
Jun 16, 2021 at 22:50 comment added user292590 are you saying that $$\sum_{|\alpha|<1,f(\alpha)=0}\log \frac{1}{|\alpha|^2}=\frac{1}{2}\left(\sum_{-\pi/2<\arg(\rho)<\pi/2}\log\left|\frac{\rho}{1-\rho}\right|+ \sum_{-\pi/2<\arg(\rho)<\pi/2}\log\left|\frac{\rho}{1-\rho}\right| \right) $$?
Jun 16, 2021 at 19:26 history edited Alexander Kalmynin CC BY-SA 4.0
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Jun 16, 2021 at 19:19 history edited Alexander Kalmynin CC BY-SA 4.0
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Jun 16, 2021 at 19:12 history answered Alexander Kalmynin CC BY-SA 4.0