Timeline for Do $r(a) \leq^\oplus R$ and $r(a) = r(a^2)$ imply $r(a) = eR$ and $r(1-a) \subseteq (1-e)R$ for some idempotent $e$?
Current License: CC BY-SA 4.0
8 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
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| Jul 7, 2021 at 13:42 | comment | added | Salvo Tringali | Link to a related question: mathoverflow.net/questions/396977 | |
| Jun 10, 2021 at 3:37 | history | edited | Salvo Tringali | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
fixed the title (see the comments under Pace Nielsen's answer)
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| Jun 10, 2021 at 3:36 | vote | accept | Salvo Tringali | ||
| Jun 9, 2021 at 22:15 | answer | added | Pace Nielsen | timeline score: 3 | |
| Jun 9, 2021 at 19:04 | history | edited | Salvo Tringali | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
mentioned another class of rings for which the answer is yes
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| Jun 9, 2021 at 13:00 | history | edited | Salvo Tringali | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
added a link and the definition of a right Rickart ring
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| Jun 9, 2021 at 12:42 | history | edited | Salvo Tringali | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
added 60 characters in body
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| Jun 9, 2021 at 12:37 | history | asked | Salvo Tringali | CC BY-SA 4.0 |