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Jun 9, 2021 at 1:24 comment added paul garrett In light of actual mathematical facts, this question turns out to be too broad, yes, but in a different universe it the answer would have been that the two things are indeed the same. So, why not here? I myself find this a fair question. :)
Jun 9, 2021 at 0:58 comment added Yemon Choi I think there is no meaningful connection other than saying that some injection from a class of maps into another class is surjective. This seems hopelessly broad.
Jun 9, 2021 at 0:35 comment added IJM98 @MarkWildon Well as the first comment from Sasha, Riesz implies also that $V\longrightarrow V^*$ is surjective, so maybe there is something.
S Jun 8, 2021 at 22:39 history suggested Dirk Werner CC BY-SA 4.0
some language
Jun 8, 2021 at 20:42 review Suggested edits
S Jun 8, 2021 at 22:39
Jun 8, 2021 at 12:39 comment added IJM98 @MarkWildon It doesn't seem like there is a parallel.
Jun 8, 2021 at 12:22 comment added Mark Wildon Is there a parallel in their corollaries? JDT (in the version you've stated above) implies that the canonical map $R \rightarrow \mathrm{End}_D(U)$ is surjective (which is how the result is often stated); Riesz implies the existence of an adjoint to an arbitrary bounded linear transformation on $H$.
Jun 8, 2021 at 6:05 comment added Sasha I personally don't see too much similarity. Jacobson is of the type "given a nice $A$-module $M$, the canonical $A \to End_{End_A (M)} (M)$ is surjective". Riesz is of the type "Given $V \to V^*$ with some nice properties (in particular, being injective), $V \to V^*$ is surjective". But maybe I miss something.
Jun 8, 2021 at 0:17 history edited IJM98
edited tags
Jun 7, 2021 at 23:31 history edited IJM98
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Jun 7, 2021 at 18:47 history asked IJM98 CC BY-SA 4.0