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May 28, 2021 at 21:12 comment added LSpice I agree that describing them as "$G$-conjugacy classes which stay conjugacy classes for $H$" or "$H$-conjugacy classes which stay conjugacy classes for $G$" are both valid, and equivalent; I was just confused by "$G$-conjugacy classes in $H$ which stay conjugacy classes in $G$".
May 28, 2021 at 21:09 comment added David E Speyer We want subsets of $H$ which are conjugacy classes for both $G$ and for $H$. We can either think of them as $G$-conjugacy classes which stay conjugacy classes for $H$, or as $H$-conjugacy classes which stay conjugacy classes for $G$.
May 28, 2021 at 18:57 comment added LSpice Should be $H$-conjugacy classes that stay conjugacy classes in $G$, right? \\ A silly version of your desired action (suitable modification works for $\mathbb Z/p\mathbb Z$): multiply by a fixed element of $Z(G) \setminus H$, if one exists.
May 28, 2021 at 18:54 comment added David E Speyer @LSpice Yes, I agree with your generalization to other primes. More specifically, I think it shows that the number of $G$-conjugacy classes in $H$ which stay conjugacy classes in $G$ is equal to the number of $G$-conjugacy classes lying over any fixed nonzero $a \in \mathbb{Z}/p \mathbb{Z}$.
May 28, 2021 at 18:10 comment added LSpice By the way, the reason I asked for clarification about $H$ is that the question also uses $H$, with a different meaning. Speaking of that, wouldn't the same argument, with any target $\mathbb Z/p\mathbb Z$ with $p$ prime, show that $(p - 1)\cdot\#\text{conj. classes in $H$} \ge \#\text{conj. classes not in $H$}$, thus answering one possible version of the generalised question?
May 28, 2021 at 12:35 comment added David E Speyer I suppose that the natural question this argument raises is to find an action of $\mathbb{Z}/2 \mathbb{Z}$ on $\mathrm{Conj}(G)$ with $a$ orbits of size $2$ and $b$ orbits of size $1$. (Since we have actions of $\mathbb{Z}/2 \mathbb{Z}$ on $\mathrm{Conj}(H)$, $\mathrm{Irrep}(H)$ and $\mathrm{Irrep}(G)$.)
May 28, 2021 at 7:21 vote accept Clark Lyons
May 29, 2021 at 4:06
May 28, 2021 at 6:56 vote accept Clark Lyons
May 28, 2021 at 6:56
May 28, 2021 at 3:34 history edited David E Speyer CC BY-SA 4.0
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May 28, 2021 at 3:33 comment added LSpice $\DeclareMathOperator\Hom{Hom}$Proof of the well known fact: $\Hom_H(V_H, V_H) = \Hom_G(V_H^G, V) = \Hom_G(V \oplus (V \otimes \epsilon), V) = 1 + [V \otimes \epsilon \cong V]$.
May 28, 2021 at 3:29 comment added LSpice $H = \ker \phi$? (I guess this comes later, when you define $\epsilon$; so I guess you just want to start with $H$ any index-2 subgroup?)
May 28, 2021 at 3:27 history answered David E Speyer CC BY-SA 4.0