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May 27, 2021 at 17:03 review Close votes
Jun 1, 2021 at 3:05
May 27, 2021 at 16:06 vote accept Oliver Watt
May 27, 2021 at 14:45 answer added Iosif Pinelis timeline score: 1
May 27, 2021 at 13:55 comment added Oliver Watt Thank you Dirk, that makes sense!
May 27, 2021 at 13:50 comment added Dirk I guess, that the argument for "$I+f$ invertible" is that $x+f(x)=y$ has a unique solution, since the solutions are fixed points of $x\mapsto y-f(x)$ which is a contraction and Banach's fixed point theorem applies.
May 27, 2021 at 13:21 history edited Oliver Watt CC BY-SA 4.0
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May 27, 2021 at 13:17 comment added Oliver Watt $\vert\vert f\vert\vert_{1,\infty} := \vert\vert f\vert\vert_{\infty} + L$, where the first summand is the supremum norm and $L$ is the Lipschitz constant.
May 27, 2021 at 13:16 history edited Oliver Watt CC BY-SA 4.0
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May 27, 2021 at 13:15 comment added Iosif Pinelis Thanks. I don't have an access to this book, though. How is $\|f \|_{1,\infty}$ defined?
May 27, 2021 at 13:02 comment added Iosif Pinelis Can you say what paper/book you are reading?
May 27, 2021 at 11:26 history asked Oliver Watt CC BY-SA 4.0