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Apr 25, 2022 at 22:07 history bumped CommunityBot This question has answers that may be good or bad; the system has marked it active so that they can be reviewed.
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Jul 29, 2021 at 20:07 answer added Guilherme timeline score: 1
Jul 29, 2021 at 20:01 comment added Guilherme @MateuszKwaśnicki in the reference mentioned, is called Parseval's identity or Plancherel's identity. But anyway, thank you very much.
Jul 29, 2021 at 19:54 comment added Mateusz Kwaśnicki Yes, that is what I meant. (Sorry, I somehow keep saying Plancherel's theorem where I should say Parseval's identity.)
Jul 29, 2021 at 16:40 comment added Guilherme @MateuszKwaśnicki I used the Parseval's identity contained in page $100$ of Iorio Jr, R., Iorio, V., Fourier Analysis and Partial Differential Equations, Cambridge Studies in Advanced Mathematics 70, Cambridge University Press, Cambridge, 2001. And the fact that $(-\Delta)^s$ can be seen as a pseudo-differential operator of the form $\widehat{(-\Delta)^sg}(n)=|\xi|^{2s}\widehat{g}(n)$
Jul 29, 2021 at 16:38 comment added Guilherme @MateuszKwaśnicki is correct \begin{eqnarray*} \int_{-\pi}^{\pi} |(-\Delta)^{s/2}f(x)|^2\; dx = 2\pi \sum_{n \in \mathbb{Z}} \left| |n|^{s}\widehat{f}(n) \right|^2 &=&2\pi \sum_{n \in \mathbb{Z}} |n|^{2s} \, \left|\widehat{f}(n) \right|^2 \\ &=& 2\pi \sum_{n \in \mathbb{Z}} |n|^{2s} \, \widehat{f}(n) \, \overline{\widehat{f}(n) } \\ & = & 2\pi \sum_{n \in \mathbb{Z}} (\widehat{-\Delta)^{s}} f (n) \, \overline{\widehat{f}(n) } \\ & = & \int_{-\pi}^{\pi} \overline{f(x)} \, ({-\Delta)^{s}} f (x) \; dx? \end{eqnarray*}
Jul 29, 2021 at 8:41 comment added Mateusz Kwaśnicki Apply Plancherel's theorem. Or use the fact that $(-\Delta)^{s/2}$ is self-adjoint.
Jul 28, 2021 at 23:21 comment added Guilherme @MateuszKwaśnicki Do you know any references to this result? More precisely, for $\int_{-\pi}^{\pi} \overline{f(x)}(-\Delta)^sf(x)\; dx= \int_{-\pi}^{\pi} |(-\Delta)^{s/2}f(x)|^2$?
Jul 28, 2021 at 23:21 history undeleted Guilherme
May 24, 2021 at 0:13 history deleted Guilherme via Vote
May 22, 2021 at 18:02 comment added Mateusz Kwaśnicki Well, $(\sum a_n)(\sum b_n)$ is typically not equal to $\sum a_nb_n$... The integrals are, of course, equal, as long as $f$ is in the $L^2$ domain of $(-\Delta)^s$.
May 22, 2021 at 12:29 comment added Guilherme @MateuszKwaśnicki and $\int_{-\pi}^{\pi} \overline{f(x)}(-\Delta)^sf(x)\; dx= \int_{-\pi}^{\pi} |(-\Delta)^{s/2}f(x)|^2$ holds?
May 22, 2021 at 11:15 comment added Guilherme @MateuszKwaśnicki Why?
May 22, 2021 at 8:11 comment added Mateusz Kwaśnicki This is not even true for $s = 1$. The error seems to lie in the second equality of your formula (2).
May 21, 2021 at 19:59 history edited Guilherme CC BY-SA 4.0
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May 21, 2021 at 19:52 history asked Guilherme CC BY-SA 4.0