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May 17, 2021 at 7:03 vote accept Nate River
May 17, 2021 at 7:02 answer added Anthony Quas timeline score: 1
May 17, 2021 at 6:55 comment added Nate River Ah, right we have a.s. convergence thanks to Doob’s theorem. Thanks! Would you like me to post this as an answer? So that it doesn’t stay “open”.
May 17, 2021 at 6:48 comment added Anthony Quas I think that follows from the pointwise convergence of $Y^n_i$ to $X_i$. We have $\|Y^n_i\|_2^2+\|Y^n_i-X_i\|_2^2=\|X_i\|_2^2$; and since $Y^n_i\to X_i$, we have by Fatou $\liminf \|Y^n_i\|_2^2\ge \|X_i\|_2^2$.
May 17, 2021 at 6:46 comment added Nate River In the case where the $X_i$ are absolutely continuous I think a “by hand” argument suffices, but I’m not sure how to proceed if they’re more singular.
May 17, 2021 at 6:39 comment added Nate River Oh, and the existence of such a sequence would be because $\mathcal F(X_i)$ is countably generated. How does one get $L^2$ convergence from convergence along the filtration though?
May 17, 2021 at 6:31 comment added Anthony Quas Why can't you just take a sequence of finite $\sigma$-algebras $\mathcal F^n_i$ increasing to $\mathcal F(X_i)$ (the $\sigma$-algebra generated by $X_i$) and define $Y^n_1=\mathbb E(X_1|\mathcal F^n_1\vee \mathcal F^n_0)$ and $Y^n_0=\mathbb E(X_1|\mathcal F^n_0)$?
May 17, 2021 at 4:38 history edited Nate River CC BY-SA 4.0
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May 17, 2021 at 4:32 history asked Nate River CC BY-SA 4.0