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Timeline for estimate the error term in CLT

Current License: CC BY-SA 2.5

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Aug 4, 2016 at 13:22 vote accept gondolier
Jul 28, 2016 at 16:29 answer added Iosif Pinelis timeline score: 2
Jul 28, 2016 at 15:45 history edited Iosif Pinelis
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Sep 20, 2010 at 20:51 history edited gondolier CC BY-SA 2.5
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Sep 20, 2010 at 19:14 comment added Yaroslav Bulatov I take it back, if Stein considers this, it must be interesting :) BTW, equation 37 in his book also requires f' to be bounded.
Sep 20, 2010 at 15:42 answer added gondolier timeline score: 0
Sep 20, 2010 at 14:54 answer added Mark Meckes timeline score: 3
Sep 20, 2010 at 1:07 answer added user6096 timeline score: 2
Sep 19, 2010 at 22:54 comment added gondolier sure. let's focus on the case where the sum is properly centralized and normalized.
Sep 19, 2010 at 20:54 comment added Yaroslav Bulatov OK, maybe "uninteresting" behavior rather than unusual. If mean is not 0, limiting distribution is a delta distribution. Also, CLT-type theorems for (properly scaled) distribution of $f(\bar{n})$ don't require f to be bounded.
Sep 19, 2010 at 20:24 comment added R Hahn Is $f$ bounded over all of $\mathbb{R}$, because the two polynomial examples discussed so far aren't, right? Are the $Z_k$ uniform on $\lbrace -1, 1 \rbrace$ or do you want to consider more general cases, as the parenthetical at the end of para two suggests?
Sep 19, 2010 at 20:13 comment added gondolier why is the behavior unusual? $f(\sqrt{m} \bar{X})$ converges in distribution to the image measure of standard normal under $f$. This only requires continuity of $f$.
Sep 19, 2010 at 20:04 comment added Yaroslav Bulatov Counterpart of Central Limit Theorem gives the distribution of $\sqrt{n}f(\bar{X})$. Distribution of $f(\sqrt{n}\bar{X})$ seems to have unusual behavior, for instance if $Z_i$'s are uniform on {0,1}, mean of $X_m$ goes to infinity, but because $f$ is bounded, distribution of $f(X_m)$ gets squished into a delta function
Sep 19, 2010 at 19:25 comment added gondolier well if something converges to Gaussian weakly, then all its moments must converge.
Sep 19, 2010 at 19:18 comment added Yaroslav Bulatov oh...Z's are symmetric...so the error term is 0 regardless of m, right?
Sep 19, 2010 at 19:12 comment added gondolier No. I meant $f(X_m)$. For your $f$ the error term is zero.
Sep 19, 2010 at 19:02 comment added Yaroslav Bulatov Do you perhaps mean to look at $f(\bar{X})$ instead of $f(X_m)$? For $f(x)=x^2$ your error term doesn't converge to 0.
Sep 19, 2010 at 16:36 answer added Nate Eldredge timeline score: 1
Sep 19, 2010 at 10:28 history edited gondolier CC BY-SA 2.5
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Sep 19, 2010 at 10:02 history asked gondolier CC BY-SA 2.5