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Jan 3, 2022 at 3:24 comment added Noah Schweber You can make this much simpler with symmetric differences: if $X$ is a subset of the Cantor set (hence null) then $X\triangle A$ is measurable iff $A$ is.
May 18, 2021 at 7:16 vote accept Clement Yung
May 15, 2021 at 9:18 comment added Emil Jeřábek Thank you. Note that you don’t actually need $C$ measurable: $A\cup C$ is non-measurable for every subset $C\subseteq(-\infty,0)$.
May 15, 2021 at 8:31 history edited Clement Yung CC BY-SA 4.0
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May 15, 2021 at 8:18 comment added Clement Yung Thank you all for the comments. With that in mind, is it consistent with $\mathsf{ZF}$ that there exists a non-measurable set but all bounded sets are measurable?
May 15, 2021 at 8:17 history edited Clement Yung CC BY-SA 4.0
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May 15, 2021 at 8:11 comment added Emil Jeřábek Wojowu’s objection is warranted, however, countable union is not needed for the argument. ZF certainly proves that the union of two measurable sets is measurable, thus if $X$ is non-measurable, then $X\cap[0,+\infty)$ or $X\cap(-\infty,0]$ is non-measurable, and this gives plenty of room to make the argument work.
May 15, 2021 at 6:57 comment added Wojowu I'm not sure that ZF proves that countable union of (Lebesgue-)measurable sets is measurable.
May 15, 2021 at 6:46 history answered Clement Yung CC BY-SA 4.0