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May 18, 2021 at 7:16 vote accept Clement Yung
May 15, 2021 at 14:23 history became hot network question
May 15, 2021 at 6:47 comment added Clement Yung @HanulJeon I was initially skeptical on if having one non-measurable set implies the existence of a bounded non-measurable set, but it is not difficult to obtain one. See my answer below. Thanks/
May 15, 2021 at 6:46 answer added Clement Yung timeline score: 6
May 15, 2021 at 6:32 comment added Hanul Jeon If $X\subseteq (0,1)$ is a non-measurable subset and $Y\subseteq (1,2)$ is a null set, then $X\cup Y$ is a non-measurable subset of $\mathbb{R}$, and there are $2^\mathfrak{c}$ null subsets of $Y$.
May 15, 2021 at 6:29 history edited Clement Yung CC BY-SA 4.0
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May 15, 2021 at 6:23 history asked Clement Yung CC BY-SA 4.0