Timeline for Is the following map from Z(G) x H^3(G, C*) --> H^2(G, C*) ever nontrivial?
Current License: CC BY-SA 2.5
7 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| Aug 25, 2011 at 2:26 | answer | added | Gjergji Zaimi | timeline score: 3 | |
| Aug 20, 2011 at 23:34 | vote | accept | Noah Snyder | ||
| Aug 20, 2011 at 0:21 | answer | added | Peter Teichner | timeline score: 7 | |
| Oct 6, 2010 at 21:36 | comment | added | Chris Schommer-Pries | @Charles. Suppose this is a special case, does that buy us anything? | |
| Sep 19, 2010 at 16:07 | comment | added | Charles Rezk | This looks to me like a special case of the construction: take an element $z$ in the center of $G$, get a homomorphism of groups $\mathbb{Z}\times G$ sending $(n,g)\mapsto z^ng$, consider the induced map $H^*(G,M)\to H^*(\mathbb{Z}\times G,M)\approx H^*(\mathbb{Z},\mathbb{Z})\otimes H^*(G,M)$, then get a map $H^q(G,M)\to H^{q-1}(G,M)$ by evaluating on the generator of $H_1(\mathbb{Z},\mathbb{Z})$. Is that right? | |
| Sep 19, 2010 at 15:58 | comment | added | Ian Agol | I assume you tried $Z_p^3$? | |
| Sep 19, 2010 at 4:18 | history | asked | Noah Snyder | CC BY-SA 2.5 |