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May 10, 2021 at 22:06 history became hot network question
May 10, 2021 at 15:53 vote accept L.F. Cavenaghi
May 10, 2021 at 15:29 answer added Willie Wong timeline score: 14
May 10, 2021 at 15:25 history edited L.F. Cavenaghi CC BY-SA 4.0
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May 10, 2021 at 15:15 history edited Francesco Polizzi CC BY-SA 4.0
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May 10, 2021 at 15:05 comment added Francesco Polizzi @WillieWong: oh right, the volume form varies with $f$. Thanks :)
May 10, 2021 at 14:50 comment added Willie Wong @FrancescoPolizzi: you forgot that there is a weight (coming from the volume form of the metric that realizes that value of scalar curvature). (Not saying that the claim is correct or not, but that it is plausible.)
May 10, 2021 at 14:47 comment added Francesco Polizzi There is something I do not understand. Assume that $\dim M \geq 3$ and that $M$ does not admit a metric of positive scalar curvature. By Kazhdan-Werner trichotomy theorem, a non-zero function $f$ is the scalar curvature of a Riemannian metric on $M$ if and only if it is negative somewhere. So, you are asserting that, as soon as a smooth function $f$ is negative at some point of $M$, then its integral on $M$ is non-positive. How is this possible? Or am I missing something?
May 10, 2021 at 14:02 history asked L.F. Cavenaghi CC BY-SA 4.0