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May 9, 2021 at 18:20 comment added Max Alekseyev I'm not sure how this can be useful and what's the goal of all these considerations. I do not see any implications about the infinitude of non-Wieferich primes. The case of $p$ being a Wieferich prime base $g$ is special in sense that it implies $a(n)=1$ for all $n$.
May 9, 2021 at 17:49 comment added joro Thanks. I think this deserves paper or a note. You didn't show infinitely many non-Wieferich primes in base 2, right?
May 9, 2021 at 15:04 history edited Max Alekseyev CC BY-SA 4.0
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May 9, 2021 at 14:59 history answered Max Alekseyev CC BY-SA 4.0