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May 24, 2021 at 5:17 vote accept Evans Gambit
May 17, 2021 at 11:26 answer added Matthias Wendt timeline score: 3
May 11, 2021 at 3:46 comment added Evans Gambit @MatthiasWendt: That will be great, thanks!
May 10, 2021 at 17:45 comment added Matthias Wendt You're absolutely right, sorry about the $m=2$ mistake. Maybe I should try to give more detailed explanations in an answer, not a series of comments. Might take me some time though...
May 10, 2021 at 9:30 comment added Evans Gambit @MatthiasWendt: Thanks a lot for your comments. For $m=2$, $\mathbb{A}^2-0$ is not $\mathbb{A}^1$-simply connected as $\pi_1^{\mathbb{A}^1}(\mathbb{A}^2-0)\simeq K_2^{MW}$. For $m>2$, could you please indicate how to see that the map $\mathbb{A}^m-0/\mu_n\to B_{et}\mu_n$, induces isomorphism on $\pi_0$. Also, I suppose for $m=2$ there should be a separate argument, then?
May 9, 2021 at 18:24 comment added Matthias Wendt Here's a short sketch of the relevant steps: $\mathbb{A}^m-0/\mu_n$ is an approximation of the classifying space of $\mu_n$. For $m>1$ the universal covering $\mathbb{A}^m-0$ is $\mathbb{A}^1$-simply-connected, then the map $\mathbb{A}^m-0/\mu_n\to B_{et}\mu_n$ (which classifies the $\mu_n$-covering) induces an isomorphism on $\pi_0$. The sheaf of connected components of $B_{et}\mu_n$ is $H^1_{et}(-,\mu_n)\cong \mathbb{G}_m/\mathbb{G}_m^n$.
May 9, 2021 at 12:17 history edited LSpice CC BY-SA 4.0
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May 9, 2021 at 10:58 history asked Evans Gambit CC BY-SA 4.0