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May 9, 2021 at 1:51 vote accept Fox Mulder
May 8, 2021 at 16:12 history edited Martin Sleziak
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May 7, 2021 at 16:52 comment added Peter Taylor Strengthening a conjecture usually makes it easier to prove, so it is worth noting that empirically the given polynomial for $M = 2m+1$ appears to be $(m+1) (k - 1)^{D(m)}$ (and, FWIW, this holds for $M=1$ too).
May 7, 2021 at 13:56 history edited Fox Mulder CC BY-SA 4.0
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May 6, 2021 at 23:54 answer added Max Alekseyev timeline score: 7
May 5, 2021 at 0:41 comment added Fox Mulder @David, Sam: thanks!
May 5, 2021 at 0:40 history edited Fox Mulder CC BY-SA 4.0
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May 4, 2021 at 22:54 comment added David Roberts @Fox you can hit 'edit' on the other question and copy and paste the source (then cancel the edit), rather than re-type the thing.
May 4, 2021 at 22:11 comment added Sam Hopkins You should definitely put the whole question into the text here, and not make people visit the other site to see it.
May 4, 2021 at 21:48 review First posts
May 5, 2021 at 6:30
May 4, 2021 at 21:40 history asked Fox Mulder CC BY-SA 4.0