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Jun 18, 2021 at 16:43 comment added user44143 Your formula with three squares is creative, and I see that no simple variant will work with two squares or two triangular numbers: for any finite list of functions $f_i$, the set $\{x: \exists y\,\exists z\, (f_1(x)=y^2+z^2) \vee \cdots \vee (f_n(x)=y^2+z^2)\}$ has density 0 and must miss many positive rationals.
Jun 18, 2021 at 16:05 comment added Sergey Kiselev Not sure if it can help, but it is known that the subset $\mathbb N$ of $\mathbb Z$ can be defined with two variables and can't be defined with one: mathoverflow.net/a/249525
May 4, 2021 at 16:52 comment added Apjoo sorry I got it now
May 4, 2021 at 16:52 comment added Arno Fehm @Apjoo: Euler's four squares theorem for the integers implies Lagrange's four squares theorem for the rationals: Write $ab$ as a sum of four integer squares, then divide by $b^2$.
May 4, 2021 at 16:47 history edited Arno Fehm CC BY-SA 4.0
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May 4, 2021 at 16:34 history asked Arno Fehm CC BY-SA 4.0