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May 25 at 16:45 comment added rwst Setting $x=0$ gives the result $\pi(y)+1$ ($\pi$ the prime-counting function). When you increase $x$, you take away a finite number of terms. So you can express the sum as a difference, no?
Jun 3, 2021 at 17:07 history bumped CommunityBot This question has answers that may be good or bad; the system has marked it active so that they can be reviewed.
May 4, 2021 at 16:42 history edited Ofir Gorodetsky CC BY-SA 4.0
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May 4, 2021 at 16:27 comment added Ofir Gorodetsky @Wojowu What is the asymptotics of this sum, in all ranges of $x$ and $y$ (a proof will do, of course, but I expect this was studied already).
May 4, 2021 at 14:42 comment added Wojowu What's the question?
May 4, 2021 at 13:17 answer added Ofir Gorodetsky timeline score: 2
May 4, 2021 at 10:15 history asked Ofir Gorodetsky CC BY-SA 4.0