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May 6, 2021 at 11:24 comment added Johannes Hahn By definition $f_\ast H_X^n(A) = H_X^n(f^{-1}(A))$ and the preimage of the complement of the image is empty.
May 5, 2021 at 11:57 comment added Jialong Deng Why one have $f_*H^n_X(B_r ∖f_r(B_r))=0$, if $f$ is a covering map or $f$ is not injective at that point ?
May 3, 2021 at 14:44 history answered Johannes Hahn CC BY-SA 4.0