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May 3, 2021 at 23:17 comment added Gerson J Ferreira Actually, $A_i$ and $B_i$ do not need to be hermitian. They are reps of a finite group, so they are unitary.
May 3, 2021 at 16:55 history edited Marcel CC BY-SA 4.0
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May 2, 2021 at 23:10 comment added Gerson J Ferreira Yes, all comments above are correct. And I'm sorry that I wasn't precise enough in the definitions and that I took some contextualization for granted. But I guess the problem is well established now.
May 2, 2021 at 22:47 comment added LSpice Sure, it can be arranged that $U$ (and $S$ and $P$) are unitary, but it is not automatic. (But neither is there such a thing as "the matrices that diagonalize"—indeed, the failure for there to be 'the matrix' is the whole point—so maybe it should be read as "some unitary matrices that diagonalize".)
May 2, 2021 at 22:38 comment added Rorsa Because $S$ and $P$ can always be made unitary (since they are transformations that diagonalize $A$ and $B$).
May 2, 2021 at 22:26 comment added thedude @LSpice I think he is assuming $A_i$ and $B_i$ to be hermitian
May 2, 2021 at 22:09 review Close votes
May 12, 2021 at 3:02
May 2, 2021 at 21:42 comment added LSpice Why should $U = S P^{-1}$ be unitary?
May 2, 2021 at 21:03 answer added Gerson J Ferreira timeline score: 3
May 1, 2021 at 15:22 history asked Gerson J Ferreira CC BY-SA 4.0