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Apr 29, 2021 at 6:42 history edited W. Wang CC BY-SA 4.0
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Apr 27, 2021 at 19:05 comment added Ilya Bogdanov @darij As for criterion: Apply your argument to each irreducible factor separately. As for reasoms to put an alternative proof: this is kind of technique which is widely applicable, and it replaces some art with more routine actions; I think this may be quite jnstructive.
Apr 27, 2021 at 18:38 comment added darij grinberg @IlyaBogdanov: Your answer is beautiful; I don't see much of a point in adding my own, particularly as I'd have to prove or source some commutative algebra (I'm not sure how easy your criterion for no multiple factors is to prove).
Apr 27, 2021 at 15:20 history became hot network question
Apr 27, 2021 at 12:28 comment added Ilya Bogdanov (Sorry for multiple comments) the Pfaffian has no multiple factors merely because it is linear in each variable.
Apr 27, 2021 at 12:21 comment added Ilya Bogdanov @darij BTW you don't need irreducibility; you obly beed that the Pfaffian has no multiple irreducible factors (still I don't know whether it is easier to prove)
Apr 27, 2021 at 12:18 comment added Ilya Bogdanov @darij Thanks a lot! Could you put this as another answer?
Apr 27, 2021 at 11:33 comment added W. Wang @darij:Now, I understand your approach. It is also very cool, and is more conceptual( borrowing the language of IIya Bogdanov.)
Apr 27, 2021 at 11:14 comment added darij grinberg ... by Hilbert's Nullstellensatz (and using the irreducibility of the Pfaffian, which I believe is well-known), this entails that the Pfaffian of $S$ divides the determinant of $W$ as a polynomial over the prime field, which we can take to be $\mathbb{Q}$. Finally, this results in a divisibility over $\mathbb{Z}$ by Gauss's lemma.
Apr 27, 2021 at 11:13 comment added darij grinberg @W.Wang: Ah, I see. You can actually argue a bit simpler: Over a field, $\det S = 0$ is equivalent to $\operatorname{Pf} S = 0$ and implies that $S$ has rank $\leq n-2$ (since the rank of an alternating matrix over a field is always even). Hence, for any vector $w$, the $n-1$ vectors $S^1 w, S^2 w, \ldots, S^{n-1} w$ are $n-1$ vectors in a space of dimension $\leq n-2$ (viz., the column space of $S$), and therefore are linearly independent. Hence, the columns of $W$ are linearly dependent, so that $\det W = 0$. Now, ...
Apr 27, 2021 at 10:48 comment added W. Wang @darij, det S=0 implies S has 0 as a multiple eigenvalue. Since rank W is at most the number of distinct eigenvalues of S (using the spectral decomposition theorem for normal matrices) . This fact may imply the division relation as you comment. I know little about commutative algebra, and I will try your approach. I recall similar argument can be used to give an interesting (unusual) proof for Vandermonde determinant.
Apr 27, 2021 at 9:55 comment added Ilya Bogdanov @darij Ah, I see. Anyway, in fact, I would be glad to see something more conceptual and connected with the Pfaffian than my answer...
Apr 27, 2021 at 9:51 comment added darij grinberg @IlyaBogdanov: Note that I wrote $\operatorname{Pf}$, not $\det$. But this is moot anyway, as your answer appears to be much better (will read it later tonight).
Apr 27, 2021 at 9:36 vote accept W. Wang
Apr 27, 2021 at 9:07 comment added Ilya Bogdanov @darij The commutative algebra approach from your first comment won’t work, otherwise you would prove $\det S\mid \det W$ which may fail (as in the OP’s example).
Apr 27, 2021 at 9:02 comment added darij grinberg Actually, if I am understanding things right, $e$ can be any vector, not necessarily the all-ones vector.
Apr 27, 2021 at 9:01 answer added Ilya Bogdanov timeline score: 7
Apr 27, 2021 at 8:48 comment added darij grinberg Actually, it is sufficient to prove that $\operatorname{Pf} S = 0$ implies $\det W = 0$ over any field, since the Pfaffian is a primitive irreducible polynomial over the integers (at least I believe so). Maybe it is even sufficient to restrict oneself to characteristic-$0$ fields.
Apr 27, 2021 at 8:14 comment added darij grinberg "In particular, when $\det(S)=0$ then $\det(W)=0$. This particular case is not hard to show." If you can prove that $\operatorname{Pf} S = 0$ implies $\det W = 0$ over an arbitrary commutative ring, then you have solved your problem. Do you use the field property somewhere?
Apr 27, 2021 at 7:20 history asked W. Wang CC BY-SA 4.0