Timeline for Intuition/elegant reason for why Langevin diffusion converges to $\exp(-U)$?
Current License: CC BY-SA 4.0
2 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
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| Feb 28 at 19:26 | comment | added | gondolier | I think one needs to further lower bound the derivative on the RHS by F itself. Otherwise this explanation does not preclude the possibility that it converges to F=0.1. | |
| Apr 24, 2021 at 7:59 | history | answered | Abhishek Halder | CC BY-SA 4.0 |