Skip to main content
formatting
Link
YCor
  • 63.9k
  • 5
  • 187
  • 285

Intuition/elegant reason for why Langevin diffusion converges to $exp$\exp(-U)$?

Source Link
Linus Hamilton
  • 1.9k
  • 13
  • 15

Intuition/elegant reason for why Langevin diffusion converges to $exp(-U)$?

Given a potential function $U: \mathbb{R}^n \to \mathbb{R}$, Langevin diffusion is gradient descent plus a Brownian motion term: $X' = -\nabla U(X) + \sqrt{2} \text{ }dW$.

It happens that the stationary distribution of Langevin diffusion is very nice: it is proportional to $\exp(-U)$. I can verify this by plugging $\exp(-U)$ into a PDE and checking that some second-order terms miraculously cancel. But seeing as $\exp(-U)$ is such a simple solution, I expect an elegant reason for it... or at the very least, some intuition for why the stationary distribution at $x$ should depend only on $U(x)$. Is there any intuition to be found here?