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Apr 21, 2021 at 21:30 vote accept Jackson Morrow
Apr 21, 2021 at 20:52 answer added R. van Dobben de Bruyn timeline score: 2
Apr 21, 2021 at 19:38 history edited Jackson Morrow CC BY-SA 4.0
Question was answered in comments, so I slightly tweaked it
Apr 21, 2021 at 19:33 comment added Jackson Morrow @R.vanDobbendeBruyn Thanks for that clarification! I will update the question to ask about Mochizuki's proof technique
Apr 21, 2021 at 19:30 comment added R. van Dobben de Bruyn "Defined in codimension 1" means that it's defined at all generic points of subschemes of codimension $\leq 1$, i.e. the locus where it's undefined has codimension $\geq 2$.
Apr 21, 2021 at 19:22 comment added Jackson Morrow @R.vanDobbendeBruyn Thank you for the comment! I was aware of this result but this requries that the rational map from $Z \dashrightarrow G$ to be defined in codimension $\leq 1$ right? Perhaps I am misunderstanding what defined in codimension $\leq 1$ means. In any event, I would still like to try and understand how one deduces the result for the semi-abelian variety from knowing it for the abelian and toric part.
Apr 21, 2021 at 18:56 comment added R. van Dobben de Bruyn This is actually true for arbitrary group schemes by a result of Weil. See for example Bosch–Lütkebohmert–Raynaud's Néron Models, Theorem 4.4.1.
Apr 21, 2021 at 18:45 history asked Jackson Morrow CC BY-SA 4.0