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Apr 22, 2021 at 16:19 comment added Bill Johnson Yes; that is right.
Apr 22, 2021 at 14:01 comment added Dongyang Chen In you answer, norm to $1+\epsilon$ the finite dimensional $M$ by finitely many linear functionals of norm one may means that there exists $x^{*}_{1},\cdots,x^{*}_{n}$ of norm one in $X^{*}$ so that $\max_{k}|\langle x^{*}_{k},m\rangle\|\geq \frac{1}{1+\epsilon}\|m\|$ for $m\in M$. Is that right?
Apr 21, 2021 at 15:29 vote accept Dongyang Chen
Apr 21, 2021 at 15:28 comment added Dongyang Chen As for Question 2, J. Lindenstrauss and H. P. Rosenthal pointed out that it follows from the proof of Theorem 2.1 and James's distortion theorem that if $X$ is $C$-complemented in $C(K)$ , then $X$ is an $\mathcal{L}_{\infty, 9C+\epsilon}$ space for every $\epsilon>0$.
Apr 21, 2021 at 15:23 comment added Dongyang Chen Question 1 comes from the proof of Theorem 2.1 in J. Lindenstrauss and H. P. Rosenthal's paper in 1969. You do not misunderstand my question and you are right. But I have to check your answer.
Apr 21, 2021 at 13:40 history answered Bill Johnson CC BY-SA 4.0