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Apr 16, 2021 at 21:17 comment added 61plus I see what is going on now. The continuous mapping theorem will require some form of convergence of joint distribution as well. Thank you for the counterexample.
Apr 16, 2021 at 20:47 comment added Will Sawin That's not good enough. For example we can take $X_1$ and $X_2$ to be Gaussian but $X_1=X_2 $ half the time and $X_1=-X_2$ half the time. Then $\mathbb E[X_1X_2]=0$ but $X_1,X_2$ are very different from the standard Gaussians $Z_1,Z_2$ with the same mean and variance.
Apr 16, 2021 at 20:15 history edited 61plus CC BY-SA 4.0
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Apr 16, 2021 at 20:12 comment added 61plus I intended for the first inequality to be univariate and true for all $i$. An example of $\rho(x)$ could be like $\varepsilon/(1+x^2)$.
Apr 16, 2021 at 19:29 comment added Will Sawin Is the maximum value of $\rho$ small, or do you want to take advantage of the fact that it decreases? Is the first inequality supposed to be multidimensional, with $x$ a vector in $\mathbb R^n$? If not, won't you run into trouble even with $\rho=0$?
Apr 16, 2021 at 17:35 history edited 61plus
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Apr 16, 2021 at 16:54 history asked 61plus CC BY-SA 4.0