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Apr 12, 2021 at 20:56 comment added John Baez Right, @TimothyChow. I'm trying to write a paper for category theorists who aren't experts in representation theory, so ideally I could just say what a splitting field is and point to Corollary 41.6 in The Great Tome of Representation Theory, which says "$\mathbb{Q}$ is a splitting field for $S_n$", instead of making them wade through a construction and figure out for themselves that $\mathbb{Q}$ is a splitting field for $S_n$. Luckily Corollary 4.16 of Lorenz's A Tour of Representation Theory says exactly what I want, right after he does the construction.
Apr 12, 2021 at 16:30 comment added Timothy Chow Various people have essentially said this, but just to state it explicitly: Perhaps the reason you "haven't found a good reference" for "$\mathbb{Q}$ is a splitting field for any symmetric group" is that what the books tend to prove is a much stronger statement: "Here is an explicit combinatorial construction of the all the finite-dimensional irreducible representations of $S_n$ that uses only integers." There are plenty of good references for this latter fact, of which the fact you're interested in is an immediate corollary.
Apr 12, 2021 at 14:17 answer added Benjamin Steinberg timeline score: 9
Apr 11, 2021 at 19:47 answer added Andy Putman timeline score: 6
Apr 11, 2021 at 19:42 answer added Maxime Ramzi timeline score: 4
Apr 11, 2021 at 19:18 answer added Geoff Robinson timeline score: 9
Apr 11, 2021 at 19:15 history became hot network question
Apr 11, 2021 at 17:38 answer added Mare timeline score: 12
Apr 11, 2021 at 17:32 answer added LSpice timeline score: 3
Apr 11, 2021 at 17:27 comment added LSpice One more: the related question mathoverflow.net/questions/29919/… MO discovered seems on the cusp (haha, says this student of Harish-Chandra's philosopy of cusp forms) of addressing (1).
Apr 11, 2021 at 17:25 comment added LSpice Also, for (2), every $S_n$-representation already carries a $\mathbb Z$-structure, so that should be even stronger.
Apr 11, 2021 at 17:24 comment added LSpice Couldn't (1) and (2) be subsumed by showing that the representations of the form $\overline k \otimes_k (\rho_1 \otimes \dotsb \otimes \rho_p)$ give a decomposition of the regular representation, e.g., character-theoretically? (I don't know if this is true, but am optimistic.)
Apr 11, 2021 at 17:18 history migrated from math.stackexchange.com (revisions)
Apr 10, 2021 at 23:46 comment added hunter I wonder if (1) and (2) together are enough to imply the desired claim -- conceivably the product could have a non-factorizable representation that becomes isomorphic to a factorizable one over the algebraic closure. (making up the word "factorizable"to mean "satisfying the conclusion of (1)").
Apr 10, 2021 at 23:41 answer added Ted timeline score: 2
Apr 10, 2021 at 23:11 history asked John Baez CC BY-SA 4.0