Timeline for Finite-dimensional subspaces of $c_{0}$
Current License: CC BY-SA 4.0
10 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| Apr 12, 2021 at 8:10 | history | edited | Francesco Polizzi | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
added 24 characters in body
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| Apr 12, 2021 at 0:50 | vote | accept | Dongyang Chen | ||
| Apr 11, 2021 at 16:31 | answer | added | Fedor Petrov | timeline score: 4 | |
| Apr 11, 2021 at 1:12 | comment | added | Dongyang Chen | @DirkWerner The norm-1 projection onto $l_{\infty}^{n}$ is for free because $l_{\infty}^{n}$ is 1-injective. You are right. | |
| Apr 10, 2021 at 17:39 | comment | added | Dirk Werner | What is the difference between what your asking and that $c_0$ is an $\mathscr{L}_{\infty, 1+\varepsilon}$-space? The norm-1 projection onto $\ell_\infty^n$ is for free, isn't it? | |
| Apr 10, 2021 at 9:57 | history | edited | YCor | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
edited tags
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| Apr 10, 2021 at 9:49 | history | edited | Dongyang Chen | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
deleted 37 characters in body; edited title
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| Apr 10, 2021 at 4:25 | comment | added | Dongyang Chen | @YemonChoi My question is sharper than $X$ is a $\mathcal{L}_{p}$-space. | |
| Apr 10, 2021 at 4:01 | comment | added | Yemon Choi | Isn't this the same as asking if $X$ is a ${\mathcal L}_p$-space, or have I misread something? | |
| Apr 10, 2021 at 3:23 | history | asked | Dongyang Chen | CC BY-SA 4.0 |