Timeline for Multiplication of a Riesz basis
Current License: CC BY-SA 4.0
8 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
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| Apr 6, 2021 at 13:48 | comment | added | Gustave | And what if I consider the space $H^1_0(0,1)^2$ instead of $H^1_0(0,1)\times L^2(0,1)$?. I think that this is true. Please, correct me if I'm mistaken. Thank you. | |
| Apr 5, 2021 at 20:11 | comment | added | Gustave | thank you. I can see it now. | |
| Apr 5, 2021 at 20:04 | history | edited | Gustave | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
added 15 characters in body
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| Apr 5, 2021 at 20:00 | comment | added | Willie Wong | I am surprised at what you can prove. Given an arbitrary pair $(\phi, \psi)\in H^0_1 \times L^2$, and consider the matrix valued function $e^{Mx}$. If you write $(\tilde{\phi}, \tilde{\psi})$ for $e^{Mx}(\phi, \psi)$, generally $\tilde{\phi}$ is not going to be vanishing on the boundary. | |
| Apr 5, 2021 at 19:59 | comment | added | Iosif Pinelis | What is $x$ here? A number? If so, then $T$ will not be an operator into $H^1_0(0,1) \times L^2(0,1)$ unless $x=0$ or the matrix $M$ is lower triangular. | |
| Apr 5, 2021 at 19:26 | history | edited | Gustave | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
added 26 characters in body
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| Apr 5, 2021 at 19:20 | history | edited | gmvh | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
Copyediting for spelling and grammar
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| Apr 5, 2021 at 19:08 | history | asked | Gustave | CC BY-SA 4.0 |