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Aug 18, 2021 at 7:59 history edited UserA CC BY-SA 4.0
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Mar 31, 2021 at 20:16 comment added Abdelmalek Abdesselam @UserA: "idealized white noise" in the book is to be understood as "heuristic/physicsy white noise". Moreover, they don't give the variance of $\dot{W}_t$ because this is a "$N(0,\infty)$" variable. The issue here is one should not take seriously the $t$-indexed process $\{\dot{W}_t\}_{t\ge 0}$.
Mar 31, 2021 at 15:43 comment added ofer zeitouni I believe there is some confusion in this question: you confuse the generalized noise (which is only defined as a distribution) with its action on test functions. There is no way to define the white noise pointwise, as you wanted.
Mar 31, 2021 at 15:42 comment added ofer zeitouni @Dieter Kadelka Note that the variance of $\dot{W}$ is infinite....
Mar 31, 2021 at 15:35 answer added Iosif Pinelis timeline score: 2
Mar 31, 2021 at 14:55 history edited UserA CC BY-SA 4.0
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Mar 31, 2021 at 13:50 comment added UserA It is an unconventional naming I agree. I noticed it in the book Stochastic Partial Differential Equations: A Modeling, White Noise Functional Approach. I am aware that this is a generalised srochastic process. However, why is the definition of white noise if you say that the above is not white noise?
Mar 31, 2021 at 13:43 comment added Martin Hairer What you call 'idealised white noise' is not white noise. It also isn't a stochastic process in the usual sense because it cannot be made measurable in $t$.
Mar 31, 2021 at 12:19 comment added Dieter Kadelka Seems to be one of the most simple ways to construct white noise.
Mar 31, 2021 at 11:31 comment added UserA You mean to say that we use the Kolomogorov extension theorem?
Mar 31, 2021 at 11:27 comment added Dieter Kadelka What about $\otimes_{t \in \mathbb{R}_+} \mathcal{N}(0,1)$, the product of standard normal distributions?
Mar 31, 2021 at 11:24 history edited UserA CC BY-SA 4.0
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Mar 31, 2021 at 11:19 history asked UserA CC BY-SA 4.0