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Mar 30, 2021 at 23:38 history edited Iosif Pinelis CC BY-SA 4.0
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Mar 30, 2021 at 20:17 history edited Iosif Pinelis CC BY-SA 4.0
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Mar 30, 2021 at 20:16 comment added username I stand corrected
Mar 30, 2021 at 20:15 comment added Iosif Pinelis @username : No, it is not. Remember that $-1<p\le0$.
Mar 30, 2021 at 20:12 comment added username Inequality for $R_1^\prime$ inverted
Mar 30, 2021 at 20:06 history edited Iosif Pinelis CC BY-SA 4.0
added 537 characters in body
Mar 30, 2021 at 18:56 comment added Cyrus Hettle Thank you. I'm really only interested in the case when $p\geq -1$, but my code was misbehaving and had indicated the inequality held for all nonpositive $p$. Statement corrected.
Mar 30, 2021 at 18:17 history edited Iosif Pinelis CC BY-SA 4.0
added 115 characters in body
Mar 30, 2021 at 18:11 history answered Iosif Pinelis CC BY-SA 4.0